Question

Jaxon Company purchased quipment on July 1, 2016, for $270,000. It is estimated that the equipment will have a $20,00o salvag

Please explain 1 and 2. I don't understand where the (1/2) is coming from. When I enter the formula in the green box I'm not getting 7500 on my calculator. I'm very confused as to why my answers with the * are wrong.

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Answer #1

Answer

  • First of all, the (1/2) is coming in 2016 expense because the Equipment was used for 6 months (half year) in year 2016, from 1 Jul 2016 to 31 Dec 2016 = 6 months. Hence, ½ = 50% Depreciation.
  • Follow this working for clearance

A

Cost

$          270,000.00

B

Residual Value

$            20,000.00

C=A - B

Depreciable base

$          250,000.00

D

Life [in years]

10

E=C/D

Annual SLM depreciation

$            25,000.00

F=E/C

SLM Rate

10.00%

G=F x 2

DDB Rate

20.00%

  • Requirement 1: Straight Line Method

Formula

2016 Expense

Formula

2017 Expense

Depreciation expense

[(270000-20000)/10] x 1/2

$12,500

[(270000-20000)/10]

$25,000

  • Requirement 2: Double declining balance method

Formula

2016 Expense

Formula

2017 Expense

Depreciation expense

[(270000 x 20%)] x 1/2

$27,000

[(270000-27000) x 20%]

$48,600

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