Question

3. You have N boxes (labeled 1,2,... , N), and you have k balls. You drop the balls into the boxes, independently of each other. For each ball the probability that it will land in a particular box is 1/N. Let Xi be the number of balls in box 1 and XN the number of balls in box N. Calculate Corr(X,XN)
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Answer #1

There are N boxes and the k balls. The probability that a ball lands in box i is Pi = , where i=1,..,N

Let X_i be the number of balls landed in box i.

Then the random vector X_1,...,X_N has a multinomial distribution with k trials and cell probabilities p_1=...=p_N=rac{1}{N}

The joint pmf of (X_1,...,X_N) is given by

た! p(x1,..,N) た! k! た! as

We know that if (X_1,...,X_N) have multinomial distribution with k trials, then the covariance of egin{align*} X_i,X_j end{align*} is given by

egin{align*} Cov(X_i,X_j)=-kp_ip_j end{align*}

Hence the Covariance of egin{align*} X_1,X_N end{align*} is

egin{align*} Cov(X_1,X_N)=-kp_1p_N=-rac{k}{N^2} end{align*}

If we consider the number of balls in a single box egin{align*} X_i end{align*} , this has a Binomial distribution with number of trails k and probability of success egin{align*} p_i=rac{1}{N}end{align*}

The pmf of egin{align*} X_i end{align*} is

egin{align*} P(X_i=x_i)&=inom{k}{x_i}p_i^{x_i}(1-p_i)^{k-x_i} &=inom{k}{x_i}(1/N)^{x_i}(1-(1/N))^{k-x_i} end{align*}

The variance of such a Binomial variable is

egin{align*} Var(X_i)=kp_i(1-p_i)=krac{1}{N}left(1-rac{1}{N} ight )=rac{k(N-1)}{N^2}end{align*}

Now back to the correlation of egin{align*} X_1,X_N end{align*} , which is

Corr(Xi, XN)- Var(X)Var(Xy) k(N-1 k(N-1) k(N-1) V2

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