On November 1, 20-n, you notice the following bid-ask quotes in the option market (supposedly perfect otherwise!), the underlying asset being stock ABC:
Call 130 January: 11-12
Call 145 January: 7-8
Put 130 January: 8.5-9.5
Put 145 January: 16-17
ABC quotes 133 and the 3-month interest rate is 4% (proportional, annualized rate).
a) What arbitrage should you undertake (transaction costs are negligible, but you are not market-maker, so that you are subject to the bid-ask spread)?
b) Is it really riskless?
c) What is its IRR if you do not cancel, either by lending or by borrowing, the initial cash-inflow or outflow?
Recall the Call Put Parity Equation:
C - P = S - PV (K)
K = strike Price = 130
LHS = C - P = Buy a call + Short (Sell) a Put = 12 - 8.5 = 3.5
RHS = S - PV (K) = 133 - 130 x (1 + 4% x 3 / 12)-1 = 4.29
RHS = S - PV(K) > LHS = C - P
Hence, S - PV(K) + P - C > 0
Part (a)
Hence, the arbitrage strategy should be:
Part (b)
Yes, it is really riskless.
Part (c)
IRR = Riskless return = 4%
On November 1, 20-n, you notice the following bid-ask quotes in the option market (supposedly perfect...