a) As her investments earn an effective annual return of 6%, on her combined investments, the amount of money that she will have at the end of the 20 years is the same amount if her investment were earning 6% and she had not taken out any money
So, Amount at end of 20 years = FV of all the installments paid
=500 * (1.06)20 + 500 * (1.06)19+500 * (1.06)18+....+500 * (1.06)1
= 500 *1.06 * (1.0620 -1) /(1.06-1)
= $19496.36
b) The interest amount at the end of the first year is 500*i (as this interest is withdrawn there will be no interest on the same)
The interest amount at the end of the second year is 1000*i
and so on till
The interest amount at the end of the 20th year is 10000*i
The amount in the bank account in which installments are paid at the end of 20 years will only be $500 deposited each year for 20 years as only principal will remain in this account
=500 +500 + ... upto 20 times
= 500*20 = $10000
So , remaining amount of $9496.36 should have come from the Second account in which interest was reinvested at the rate of i/2
Therefore, amount in the 2nd account will be the future value of all the interest investments 500*i , 1000*i, .... , 10000* i
Now, 9496.36 = 500 * i * (1+i/2)19 + 1000 *i * (1+i/2)18+...... +10000 * i
Solving for i by Hit and Trial Method, we get
i = 7.1373% = 7.14%
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