The free cash flow(in millions) shown below are
forecast by Parker& Sons.If the weighted average cos of
capital(WACC) is 11% and FCF is expected to grow at a rate of 5%
after 2years.What is the year 0(Zero) value of operations in
millions?
Assume that the ROIC isexpected to remain constant in Year 2 and
beyond.(and do not make any half year adjustments)
Year
1
2
FCF
-$50 $100
WACC = 11%
g = growth rate = 5%
FCF in Year 1 = -$50 million
FCF in Year 2 = $100 million
FCF in Year 3 = $100 million * (1+5%) = $105 million
FCF in Year 2 for the years 3 and thereafter = FCF in Year 3 / (WACC - growth rate)
= $105 million / (11% - 5%)
= $1,750 million
Value of Operations in Year 0 = Present value of operations
= [FCF in Year 1 / (1+r)^1] + [FCF in Year 2 / (1+r)^2] + [FCF in Year 2 for years thereafter / (1+r)^2]
= [-$50 million / (1+11%)^1} + [$100 million / (1+11%)^2] + [$1,750 million / (1+11%)^2]
= [-$50 million /1.11] + [$100 million / 1.2321] + [$1,750 million / 1.2321]
= -$45.045045 + $81.162243 + $1,420.33926
= $1,456.45646
Therefore, value of Operations in Year 0 is $1,456.46
FCF1: -$50
FCF2: $100
g: 5%
WACC: 11%
First, find the horizon, or terminal, value:
HV2 = FCF2(1 + g)/(WACC – g) = $100(1.05)/(0.11 – 0.05) = $1,750.00
Then find the PV of the free cash flows and the horizon value:
Value of operations = -$50/(1.11) + ($100 + $1,750)/(1.11)2 = $1,456
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