Question

PLEASE HELP

The top image is the question, the bottom image is the answer.

Within the answer (second image), in working 1 (W1) Revaluation where did they get the cost from as well as the SOPOL OCI-Revaluation gain figure from?

And why do we CR cost for machine 2 and not DR like machine 1?

POLSON LTD Polson Ltd has supplied you with information about the two factory machines that they own: Machine 1 Machine 2 Dep

Q6 POLSON LTD (a) Extracts from the financial statements for the year ended 31 August 2019 £000 66,400 116,000 Statement of p

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Answer #1

NET REVALUATION GAIN due to change in COST OF MACHINES:

PARTICULAR

MACHINE 1

MACHINE 2

OLD COST(1.09.2018)

180,000

80,000

NEW COST(1.09.2018)

264,000

112,000

NET INCREASE

84,000

32,000

*(31.08.2018 ~ 01.09.2018 as end of August is the beginning of September)

Also, Surplus of revaluation Gain was transferred to reserves.

Now, Change in cost balances of machines (as on 1.09.16 and 1.09.2018)

PARTICULAR

MACHINE 1

MACHINE 2

OLD COST (1.09.2016)

240,000

120,000

NEW COST (1.09.2018)

264,000

112,000

NET INCREASE/(DECREASE)

24,000

(8,000)

This the reason due to which the COST of machine 1 was DR., and COST of machine 2 (negative) was CR.

[*PLEASE MENTION IN COMMENTS IF YOU LIKE THE ANSWER. ALSO, IF YOU STILL FACE DIFFICULTY MENTION IT.]

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