Solution,
Here P doller has been received time zero. $400 is paid after 2 years ad $600 after 5 years. So cash flow diagram is-
In this problem P doller has been borrowed at time 0. Interest is payable at 12%. Payment has been made in two instalments. First one is paid after 3 years. Amount is 400. It included interest for 3 years on p doller. Balance amount along with interest for 2 tearsnis repaid. Thus-
1. Loan taken on time 0 |
P |
2. Add: Interest at 12% for 3 years [PX(1.12)3 -P] | 0.404928P |
3. Total amount due at the end of year 3 [1+2] | 1.404928P |
4. Less: amount paid after 3 years | 400 |
5. Balance left at the start of 4th year [3-4] | 1.404928P-400 |
6. Add: Interest for 4th year [1.404928P-400]*0.12 | 0.16859136P-48 |
7. Total dues at the end of 4th year [5+6] | 1.5735193P-448 |
8. add: Interest of 5th year [1.5735193P-448]*0.12 | 0.1888223P-53.76 |
9. Total dues at the end of 5th year [7+8] | 1.7623416P-501.76 |
10. Paid at the end of 5th year | 600 |
11. Balance due [9-10] | 0 |
Therefore,
1.7623416P - 501.76 = 600
1.7623416P = 1101.76
1.7623416P = 625.168
Thus loan taken is $625 (rounded off to nearest doller).
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