Solution 1) Assumption: The NWC is fully recovered at book value after 8 years.
Free Cash Flow (FCF) = EBIT*(1 – t) + Depreciation – CAPEX – Change in NWC (Net Working Capital)
a) FCF for Year 0:
In year 0, Capital Expenditure (CAPEX) on upfront investment into Portioning & Cutting Equipment (CS-RS ) = RM1,860,000 = RM1.86m
The project requires an initial investment into net working capital (NWC) equal to 8% of predicted first-year sales.
Predicted first-year sales = RM5,704,000 = RM5.704m
NWC for year 0 = 8%*5.704 = RM0.45632m
Using the above mentioned formula:
FCF in year 0 = EBIT*(1 – t) + Depreciation – CAPEX – Change in NWC
=0 + 0 - 1.86 - 0.45632 = -2.31632m = -2316320
b) FCF in year 1:
Total manufacturing costs and operating expenses (excluding depreciation) are 75% of sales
Profits are taxed at 21%.
Using straight-line depreciation method, Depreciation = Purchase Price/Useful Years
Depreciation = 1860000/10 = 186000
Sales | 5704000 |
-Cost | -0.75*5704000 |
Gross Profit | 1426000 |
- Lost Rent | -171120 |
- Depreciation | -186000 |
EBIT | 1068880 |
- Tax (21%) | -224464.8 |
EBIT*(1-Tax%) | 844415.2 |
Net Working Capital in Year 1 = 10%* 5.704m = 0.5704m
Change in Net Working Capital = NWC(at t = 1) - NWC(at t = 0)
Change in Net Working Capital = 0.5704m - 0.45632m = 0.11408m = 114080
Free Cash Flows for year 1 = EBIT*(1 – t) + Depreciation – CAPEX – Change in NWC
FCF (t = 1) = 844415.2 + 186000 - 0 - 114080 = 916335.2
c) FCF in years 2-7:
Sales | 5704000 |
-Cost | -0.75*5704000 |
Gross Profit | 1426000 |
- Lost Rent | -171120 |
- Depreciation | -186000 |
EBIT | 1068880 |
- Tax (21%) | -224464.8 |
EBIT*(1-Tax%) | 844415.2 |
Since, the workiing capital in each of these years is equal to 10% of the Sales and Sales is constant so, the working capital will be same in each year.
Change in NWC = 0
FCF = EBIT*(1 – t) + Depreciation – CAPEX – Change in NWC
FCF (from t = 2 to 7) = 844415.2 + 186000 - 0 - 0 = 1030415.2
d) FCF for Year 8:
EBIT*(1-Tax%) = 844415.2
Capex = 0
The NWC (570400) is recovered at book value and hence its inflow rather than outflow.
Thus, Change in NWC = 570400
Machine Book Value at the end of Year 8 = 1860000 - 8*186000 = 372000
The machine is sold for = 608840
Profit on the machine = 608840 - 372000 = 236840
Tax on the profit of machine = 236840*21% = 49736.4
FCF = EBIT*(1 – t) + Depreciation – CAPEX – Change in NWC + Machine Selling Value - Tax paid on Profit of sale of machine
= 844415.2 + 186000 - 0 + 570400 + 608840 - 49736.4
= 2159919.80
Cash Flows
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 |
FCF | -2316320 | 916335.2 | 1030415.20 | 1030415.20 | 1030415.20 | 1030415.20 | 1030415.20 | 1030415.20 | 2159919.80 |
Solution 2)
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HOW DO I GET THE BOOK VALUE OF .240MILLION given in the
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