A beauty product company is developing a new fragrance named Happy Forever. There is a probability of 0.46 that consumers will love Happy Forever, and in this case, annual sales will be 1.00 million bottles; a probability of 0.36 that consumers will find the smell acceptable and annual sales will be 174,000 bottles; and a probability of 0.18 that consumers will find the smell unpleasant and annual sales will be only 52,000 bottles. The selling price is $39, and the variable cost is $8 per bottle. Fixed production costs will be $1.05 million per year, and depreciation will be $1.20 million. Assume that the marginal tax rate is 40 percent. What are the expected annual incremental after-tax free cash flows from the new fragrance?
Expected sales (units) = [Probability(i) * Units(i)]
= [0.46 * 1,000,000] + [0.36 * 174,000] + [0.18 * 52,000]
= 460,000 + 62,640 + 9,360
= 532,000
Expected pre-tax profit ($) = Expected Revenue - Expected variable costs - Fixed costs - Depreciation
= (532,000 * $39) - (532,000 × $8) - $1,050,000 - $1,200,000
= $20,748,000 - $4,256,000 - $1,050,000 - $1,200,000
= $14,242,000
Expected after-tax profit ($) = Expected pre-tax profit * (1 - tax rate)
= $14,242,000 * (1 - 0.4)
= $8,545,200
Expected after-tax free cash flow ($) = Expected after-tax profit + Depreciation (Since it's non-cash expense)
= $8,545,200 + $1,200,000
= $9,745,200
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