Risk Neutral Valuation is defined as an investor's risk aversion and preferences which are irrelevant in valuing options because it uses the implied probabilities embedded within the underlying stock. I.e. risk aversion affects stock prices, but the valuation method of the option remains the same.
Two-Period Model is defined as the simplest framework for understanding intertemporal choice and dynamic issues
First Period: Current period
Second Period: Future period
It leaves out production and investment
Option values is defined as sum of intrinsic value pus time or "volatility" value
Option valuation is used to get the present value of the future payoff of an option
(when it is exercised)
Utility Maximizing Rule is used to maximize satisfaction the consumer should allocate his or her money income so that the last dollar spent on each product yields the same amount of extra (marginal utility).
What is the Risk-Neutral Valuation? two period model, option valuation, utility maximization
Explain what is The Risk-Neutral Valuation
Given the following parameters use risk-neutral valuation to value a call option. Current stock price: $65.00 Stock will increase or decrease next year by: 15 pct. Call Option strike price: $60.00 Time to expiration: 1 year Risk free rate: 8 pct. A) Value of call: $9.44 B) Value of call: $13.66 C) Value of call: $10.47
Maximization of net benefits for a two period model (also profit maximization of a single owner). Two conditions must be satisfied: (P2 – MC2) = (1 + r)(P1 – MC1) q1 + q2 = qtotal In the numerical example given in lecture, the inverse demand function for the depletable resource is P = 8 – 0.4q and the marginal cost of supplying it is $2. If 20 units are to be allocated between two periods, in a dynamic efficient allocation...
Problem 1 Consider the following two-period utility maximization problem. This utility function belongs to the CRRA (Constant Relative Risk Aversion) class of functions which can be thought of as generalized logarithmic functions. An agent lives for two periods and in both receives some positive income. subject to +6+1 4+1 = 3+1 + (1 + r) ar+1 where a > 0,13 € (0, 1) and r>-1. (a) Rewrite the budget constraints into a single lifetime budget constraint and set up the...
Do the following utility functions describe risk averse, risk loving or risk neutral individuals? a. utility u(w) = 3w4 - 7 describes b. utility u(w) = 770.7 + 7 describes c. utility u(W) = 0.2w + 13 describes d. utility u(w) = 2w2 + 0.5w0.5 describes
In the use of the Black-Scholes option valuation model to determine the value of a European call option, which one of the following relationships is NOT correct? A. An increase in the risk-free rate increases the value of the European call option. B. An increase in the exercise price of the European call option increases the value of the option. C. An increase in the price of the underlying stock increases the value of the European call option. D. An...
In risk-neutral valuation, we recognize that investors are risk-averse and thus modify the probability of an increase in a stock price from the real probability. (a) True (b) False
An individual with a constant marginal utility of income will be: o risk neutral risk averse. risk loving insufficient information for a decision
Consider a two-period binomial model on an European put option. The stock is currently worth 48. The exercise price is 52. The risk-free rate is 5% U = 1.15 and D=.9 . Price the European put option.
An economist writes a 1-period expectation model for valuing options. The model assumes that the stock starts at S and moves to 2S or 0.5S in 1 year’s time with equal probability. Assume rates are zero. (a) Using this expectation model what is the value of a call option struck at K? (b) Now use the 1-period binomial model to calculate the risk-neutral probabilities and thus calculate the risk-neutral value of this call op- tion? (c) Is there an arbitrage...