Sol.2 (a) 1 Year forward rate based on interest rate parity
1 * (1+0.007969) GBP = 1.1505 * (1+0.009335) USD
1.007969 GBP = 1.17049 USD
GBP = 1.1612 USD
(b) Yes, arbitrage opportunity is available there as the one year forward rate should be 1 GBP = 1.1612 USD as per the principle of interest rate parity, but the rate is 1 GBP = 1.35 USD
Step1 - Borrow USD 1,000,000 @ 0.9335%, total payable after one year = USD 1,009,335
Step2- Convert USD 1,000,000 into GBP = 1,000,000 / 1.1505 = GBP 869,187
Step3- Invest GBP 869,187 @ 0.7969% simultaneously enter into a forward contract that converts the full maturity amount of the deposit (which works out to 876,114 GBP) into GBP at the one-year forward rate of GBP = 1.35 USD
Step4- After one year, settle the forward contract at the contracted rate of GBP = 1.35 USD, which would give the investor USD 1,182,754
Step5- Repay USD 1,009,335, and the profit for the investor = USD 173,419
2) The spot USD /GBP rate is 1.1505. The1 year t-bill rate in the US is...
Currently the spot exchange rate is $1.558 per pound (USD/GBP). The interest rate in the UK is 6%. The one-year forward exchange rate is $1.5200/GBP. If interest rate parity holds, what must be the US interest rate for the same period?
1) Today, a representative basket of goods is priced at $150 in the US and at £75 in the UK. The nominal interest rate paid on a USD denominated savings account is 2%, while the interest rate for a GBP denominated savings account is 3%. Assuming no arbitrage opportunity exists, and that real interest rates are the same in all countries, a) What should the spot rate for the GBP/USD be if the absolute PPP holds? b) Assuming that the...
Problem 5 The current spot rate is EUR/GBP 1.1600 and the six-month forward rate is EUR/ GBP 1.16300. The six-month interest rate in the UK is 0.40% and the six-month interest rate in the Eurozone is 0.44%. What would the British interest rate have to be per annum so that there would be no arbitrage opportunity? (round up your answer to the 4th digit)
Given the information: Interest rate in US (Rh): Interest rate in UK (Rf): The current spot rate for GBP (SR): 6% 4% $1.50 Suppose your lines of credit are USD 15,000,000 in the US and GBP 10,000,000 in UK. If your forecast tells you that the spot rate of GBP one year later (SR1) will be $1.535, then your preferred investment strategy should earn a net profit of: GBP 41,694 GBP 200.000 USD 64.000 USD 300,000
Suppose your broker give you the following information: Spot exchange rate (USD/EUR) = 1.1370 One year forward rate (USD/EUR) = 1.1405 One year USD interest rate = 0.87% One year Euro interest rate = 0.65% a. Is there any violation of interest rate parity? b. How would you take advantage of any arbitrage situation? c. What is your profit? d. Suggest an equilibrium value for the forward rate
Suppose the annual interest rate is 2 percent in the US and 4 percent in Germany, the spot exchange rate is USD 1.60 / EUR, and the 1year forward rate is USD 1.58 / EUR. What is the arbitrage profit in USD at the end of the year if you start by borrowing USD 5,000,000?
Given the information: Interest rate in US (Rh): 4% Interest rate in UK (RF): 2% Line of credit in US USD 15,000,000 Line of credit in UK GBP 10,000,000 The current spot rate for GBP (SRo: $1.50 Suppose your forecast tells you that the spot rate of GBP one year later (SR2) will be $1.52. Then, based on your estimated uncovered rates (Ruh & Ruf), you should borrow in and invest in GBP: USD USD: GBP
The spot exchange rate between the US dollar and Swiss franc is $1.056 per franc. Swiss banks pay 2.5 percent (annual) interest on their 180-day (6 months) deposits. On similar deposits, American banks pay 1.5 percent (annual.) Assuming that the 180-day forward rate of Swiss franc is $1.045, Do you see an arbitrage opportunity between these two countries? Briefly explain. If your answer were yes, how you would be able to take advantage from it and how much you would...
Suppose that the exchange rate (spot price) of Euro in GBP (British Pound) is GBP 0.95. In addition, assume that you can freely borrow and lend in GBP for any maturity at a rate of 2% per annum and that you can do the same in Euro at a rate of 1% per annum. Both rates are continuously compounded rates. Given these assumptions: Compute the forward price (exchange rate) of the GBP in Euro for delivery of the GBP in...
The South African Rand is trading at USD/ZAR 14.34. The 1-year USD OIS rate is trading at 2.59%, and the comparable one year ZAR rate is trading at 8.40%. You call up a broker and get a quote for a 1-year forward FX rate of 14.75. Is there an arbitrage opportunity with the broker-dealer that you called? If so, structure a US$ 100 mil (or equivalent) trade that would earn an arbitrage profit. What would the profit be (enter this...