A company has two departments that all goods pass through, finishing and assembly. The finishing department overhead is applied based on machine hours, and the assembly department overhead is applied based on direct labor hours. Data on each department are as follows:
Finishing | Assembly | |
Budgeted overhead | $80,000 | $60,000 |
Budgeted direct labor hours | 4,000 hrs. | 10,000 hrs. |
Budgeted machine hours | 32,000 hrs. | 1,000 hrs. |
Actual overhead | $75,400 | $59,700 |
Actual direct labor hours | 4,210 hrs. | 9,980 hrs. |
Actual machine hours | 28,600 hrs. | 930 hrs. |
A. Calculate the overhead rate for each department. (Round your answer to the nearest cent.)
Finishing OH rate | $ per machine hour |
Assembly OH rate | $ per direct labor hour |
B. What is each department's applied overhead?
Finishing applied OH | $ |
Assembly applied OH | $ |
C. Calculate each department's overhead variance. Specify whether it is overapplied or underapplied.
Machining OH variance | $ | |
Assembly OH variance | $ |
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A. Finishing OH rate = Budgeted OH / Budgeted machine hours
= $80000 / 32000 hrs Budgeted OH for finishing=$80000
= $2.5 per machine hour Budgeted machine hours=32000 hrs
Assembly OH rate = Budgeted OH / Budgeted labor hours Budgeted OH= $60000
= $60000 / 10000 hrs Budgeted labor hours= 10000 hrs
= $6 per labor hours
B. Finishing applied OH = Finishing OH rate X Actual machine hours
= 2.5 X 28600 hrs Finishing OH rate= $2.5
= $71500 Actual machine hours= 28600hrs
Assembly applied OH = Assembly OH rate X Actual direct labor hours
= 6 X 9980 hrs Assembly OH rate= $6
= $59880 Actual direct labor hours= 9980 hrs
C. OH variance = Actual OH – Budgeted OH
If the result is positive then it is under-applied and when it is negative it is over-applied
Finishing OH variance = $75400 - $80000
= ($4600)
($4600) is over-applied OH.
Assembly OH variance = $59700 - $60000
= ($300)
($300) is over-applied OH.
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