Solution to the above Question 5:-
One year installment note is to be paid in 12 monthly installments-
Therefore, discounting factor= Annual Rate/12 =18/12
=1.5%.
As per the below amortisation schedule, the Interest Expense debited is -
Year | Cash flows($)(a) | Discounting [email protected]%(=1/(1+0.015)^no.of months) (b) | Present Value($)(c= a*b) | Interest($)(d=a-c) |
1 | 17,144 | 0.99 | 16,890.64 | 253.36 |
2 | 17,144 | 0.97 | 16,641.03 | 502.97 |
3 | 17,144 | 0.96 | 16,395.10 | 748.90 |
4 | 17,144 | 0.94 | 16,152.81 | 991.19 |
5 | 17,144 | 0.93 | 15,914.10 | 1,229.90 |
6 | 17,144 | 0.91 | 15,678.91 | 1,465.09 |
7 | 17,144 | 0.90 | 15,447.20 | 1,696.80 |
8 | 17,144 | 0.89 | 15,218.92 | 1,925.08 |
9 | 17,144 | 0.87 | 14,994.01 | 2,149.99 |
10 | 17,144 | 0.86 | 14,772.42 | 2,371.58 |
11 | 17,144 | 0.85 | 14,554.11 | 2,589.89 |
12 | 17,144 | 0.84 | 14,339.03 | 2,804.97 |
Total | 205,728 | 10.91 | 186998.27(=$187,000) | 18729.73(=$18,728) |
When recording the December 31, 2016, the debit to Interest Expense will be $18,728.(answer)
Solution to the above Question 6:-
Bond Face Value=$180,000, Interest rate= 8%,
Now, we have to calculate Present Value @ 10%(market yield) as per below schedule-
Year | Cash flows($)(a) | Discounting factor@10%(=1/(1+0.1)^no.of months) (b) | Present Value($)(c= a*b) |
1 | 14,400 | 0.91 | 13,090.91 |
2 | 14,400 | 0.83 | 11,900.83 |
3 | 14,400 | 0.75 | 10,818.93 |
4 | 14,400 | 0.68 | 9,835.39 |
5 | 14,400 | 0.62 | 8,941.27 |
6 | 14,400 | 0.56 | 8,128.42 |
7 | 14,400 | 0.51 | 7,389.48 |
8 | 14,400 | 0.47 | 6,717.71 |
9 | 14,400 | 0.42 | 6,107.01 |
10 | 14,400 | 0.39 | 5,551.82 |
10 | 180000 | 0.39 | 69,397.79 |
Total | 157,879.56(=157,880) |
Present value of the Bond is $157,800.
Therefore, 1st year's Interest Expense =$157,800*10%
= $15,780.(answer)
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