Question

Recall that two sets are equivalent if there is a bijection between them. Use the Well Ordering Property to prove that NЭ ид. , the finite set In = {1,2,3,...) cannot be equivalent to any of its proper subsets.

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solution: Two sets are equivalent if there is a bijection between them. Now a function f: A+B is bijective iff fig injectiveso, no. of elements in In = no.of elements in ACCIn ) - which contradicts © 30, In is not equivalent to any of its proper su

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