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Is the following schema a derived rule of our logic (that is, of logic 1 or 2)? A → B ⊢ A → (∀x)B...

Is the following schema a derived rule of our logic (that is, of logic 1 or 2)?

A → B ⊢ A → (∀x)B

- If you think that it is, then give a proof in our logic

- If you do not think so, then give a definitive reason as to why-for example, using a concrete interpretation, or by proving the invalid “strong generalization” using (2) as a lemma.

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Answer #1

A ) B · @se) → AうCB.AẠ . F25e AうB

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