E(X(n))=
\
This converges to 0 as n tends to infinity. Hence a is True.
b. X(n) → 0 in distribution if
lim Fn(x) converges to F(x) as n tends to infinity. F(x) = 0 if x<0 and =1 if x>=0 in this case.
Now,
Fn(x) =
which equals n* x^2/2 if 0<x<1/n and 1 if x>1/n
as n tends to infinity x^2 converges to 0 at a much faster rate and hence Fn(x) converges to F(x). So b holds.
3. Since X(n) goes in distribution to a constant. So X(n) will also go in probability to 0. Hence c is true. In general
if X(n) goes in distribution to c where c is cont. then X(n) goes in probability to c.
4.X(n) will converge almost surely to 0 as we can define a R.V. X such that X is degenerated at 0. Xn follows U(0,1/n).
Thus as n tends to infinity Xn tends to degenerate at 0. hence d is also true.
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Hi there, is this possible to give me a help on this probability
question, literally in a desperate situation! Thanks a lot!
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