1). Number of periods N = 18*52 = 936
Interest rate = 2.5%/52 = 0.050%
PMT (weekly deposit) = 10
Solve for FV. FV = 11,932.21 (amount after 18 years)
2a). Bond will be selling for more than par value since current yield is less than coupon rate.
2b). Current yield = annual coupon/current price
current price = annual coupon/current yield
= (7.5%*1000)/6.9% = 1,086.96
2c). Bond price is calculated as the sum of the present value of all future cash flows. As interest rates increase, the discounted cash flows decrease and vice-versa. Thus, bond prices and interest rates are inversely proportional. For a higher coupon bond, the effect is less prominent as compared to lower coupon bonds.
3a). Using DDM model,
required return = expected dividend/share price + growth rate
15% = (4.75/44) + g
g = 4.20%
3b). Dividend after 5 years will be 4.75*(1+g)^4 = 4.75*(1+4.20%)^4 = 5.60
Share price after 4 years = expected dividend/(required return - growth rate)
= 5.60/(15%-4.20%) = 51.88
3c). Perpetual growth rate has to be lower than the required return otherwise the formula for perpetual value will not work. If perpetual growth rate is greater than required return then it is considered abnormal growth and cash flows for each year has to be calculated separately till the growth rate settles down to a lower, stable number. Similarly, the perpetual growth rate cannot exceed the growth rate of the economy (since it will imply that the company will always outperform the economy which is not possible) and it cannot be negative.
Question 1 (5 marks) Georgina and Harvey are expecting their first child. They would like to establish a savings plan to help cover the child's university expenses. Between them they figure they...
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