Question

1. Hydromorphone 0.5 mg is ordered direct IV for the patient. Hydromorphone is available in 2 mg /mL. How many ml will the nurse draw up in the 1 mL syringe to give the ordered dose?

2. Clindamycin 0.6 g is ordered IV q.12h. for the patient. The pharmacy sends a vial of clindamycin labeled 900 mg / 6 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer to the patient?

3. An IV of 1 g of aminophylline in 500 mL NS is infusing at 22 mL / hr. The doctor ordered 44 mg / hr of IV aminophylline. The best action of the nurse is to:

A. continue to monitor the IV infusion.

B. adjust the IV to 44 mL / hr.

C. adjust the IV to 66 mL / hr.

D. adjust the IV to 11 mL / hr. 4. An IVPB of 50 mL NS with 1 g ampicillin is to infuse over 30 minutes q.6h. How many mL / hr will the nurse set on the IV infusion pump? A. 8 mL / hr B. 2 mL / hr C. 100 mL / hr D. 17 mL / hr

             Thank You. I truly appreciate your help!

Answer 1

1. Available dose is 1ml = 2 mg ,

So 0.5 ml = 1 mg

Then 0.25 ml = 0.5 mg, so the nurse has to draw 0.25ml to administer 0.5 mg of hydromorphone.

2. 1 g = 1000 mg, divide by 10 we will get

0.1 g = 100 mg, multiply by 6, we will get

0.6 g = 600 mg.

Available dose is 900 mg = 6 ml , divide by 9, we will get

100 mg = 0. 666 ml.... We have to give 600 mg, so multiply by 6, we will get

600 mg = 3. 99ml. So the nurse has to administer 4 ml of clindamycin to administer 600 mg of clindamycin.

3. In 22 ml of IVF contains 44 mg of aminophylline . So the best action is option A. Continue to monitor the IV infusion.

4. Option C 100 ml/hr is the right answer . We have to infuse 50 ml in 30 minutes . So if we set 100 ml/hr , we can infuse 50ml over 30 minutes .