Point A) Formulae for Calculating WACC:
WACC |
= |
E |
× |
re |
+ |
D |
× |
(1 − t) |
× |
rd |
+ |
P |
× |
rp |
(E+D+P) |
(E+D+P) |
(E+D+P) |
Where:
E |
= |
Market value of equity |
D |
= |
Market value of debt |
P |
= |
Market value of preferred stock |
re |
= |
Cost of equity |
rd |
= |
Cost of debt |
rp |
= |
Cost of preferred stock |
t |
= |
Marginal tax rate |
Assume Total Inflow of |
100,000 $ |
||||
Particulars |
Share |
Interest Rate Pre Tax |
Interest Rate Post Tax |
Inflow |
|
Equity |
70% |
11% |
11% |
70,000 |
|
Preferred Stcok |
5% |
5% |
5% |
5,000 |
|
Debt |
25% |
7% |
4.55% |
25,000 |
WACC = (70000/100000)*11%+(5000/100000)*5%+(25000/100000)*4.55%
WACC of Mullineaux’s Corporation is = 9%
Point B)
If he uses Debt in place of preferred cost he will get benefit of Interest expenses on Debt as a allowable deduction for Income/ Corporation Tax computation.
So benefit of using the source as Debt was Post Tax Cost for the company which is less than Cost of Preferred Stock.
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