Solution:
EXHIBIT 1
Price of hamburgers, Ph = $2, price of fries, Pf = $0.50, price of coke, Pc = $1
Q3) Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction a person derives by consuming an extra unit. So, marginal utility of having a second order of fries is the additional utility the consumer receives by increasing the consumption of fries from one to two. So, in this case, marginal utility of second order of fries = TU2 - TU1 = 50 - 30 = 20 utils. (where TUi is total utility from order number i)
So, correct option is b) 20 utils.
Q4) Total income with the consumer, I = $6
So, the budget line of this consumer becomes: Ph*H + Pf*F + Pc*C = I (H, F, and C is the quantity of hamburgers, fries and coke respectively).
2*H + 0.5*F + 1*C = 6
For all the options, budget line is clearly satisfied. Going through each option individually,
Total utility from option (a): 240 + 0 + 0 = 240 utils
Total utility from option (b): 180 + 0 + 60 = 240 utils
Total utility from option (c): 180 + 50 + 40 = 270 utils
Total utility from option (d): 100 + 50 + 70 = 220 utils
Among all values, clearly 270 utils is highest of all. Thus, the meal giving most utility to the consumer is option (c) 2 H, 2 F and 1 C
Q5) From Q4, we have already established that where the consumer equilibrium is attained: 2 hamburgers, 2 orders of fries, and 1 coke. The marginal utility per dollar for a good i is the ratio of marginal utility attained at the equilibrium quantity of good i divided by the price of that good, that is,
Marginal utility per dollar = MUi/Pi
Marginal utility as explained in Q3, can be obtained at the equilibrium as follows:
Marginal utility of 2nd hamburger = 180 - 100 = 80 utils
Marginal utility of 2nd order of fries = 50 - 30 = 20 utils
Marginal utility of 1st coke = total utility of 1st coke (assuming that utility from consuming 0 coke is 0) = 40 utils
So, at equilibrium, marginal utility per dollar for hamburgers = 80/Ph = 80/2 = 40 utils
Marginal utility per dollar for fries = 20/Pf = 20/0.5 = 40 utils
Marginal utility per dollar for coke = 40/Pc = 40/1 = 40 utils
EXHIBIT 2:
Q6) As the economy moves from 0 unit of capital good to 1 unit of capital good, it automatically moves from 25 units of consumption goods to 23 units of consumption goods along the production possibility curve (PPC). So, the cost of first unit of capital good (that is the units of consumption goods economy will have to give up to get that first unit of capital good) = 25 - 23 = 2 units
Correct option: b) 2
Q7) Just as we solved above in Q6, we can find that the cost of:
Second unit of capital good = 23 - 19 = 4 units of consumption goods
Third unit of capital good = 19 - 13 = 6 units of consumption goods
So, the correct option is a) 4; 6
Q8) Clearly, from the above two questions we see that as the number of capital goods is increased in the economy, the quantity of consumption goods sacrificed increases (for 1st unit of capital good, cost is 2 units of consumption good. For second unit, it is 4 units of consumption goods; for third unit, cost is 6 units of consumption goods. So, clearly the sacrifice is increasing from 2 to 4 to 6 units) (eliminate options (a) and (e)). This cost of sacrifice is known as the opportunity cost, thus opportunity cost is increasing along the PPC. This happens due to decreased efficiency of each input towards the capital good, when moved away from the production of consumption good.
Thus, correct option is (c) increases; law of increasing costs
Exhibit 1 Total utility for hamburgers, fries, and Cokes Total Uitility from Hamburgers Total Utility from...
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