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You are given the following information for two funds A and B, relating to the ir performance over the last five years. Cumul
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Answer #1

a). Beta(i) = Cov{r(i) * r(m)} / Variance(m)

Beta(A) = 0.044 / (0.25)2 = 0.044 / 0.0625 = 0.704

Beta(B) = 0.075 / (0.25)2 = 0.075 / 0.0625 = 1.200

Treynor Measure(i) = [r(i) - rF] / Beta(i)

Treynor Measure(A) = [76.20% - 40.30%] / 0.704 = 35.90% / 0.704 = 50.99%

Treynor Measure(B) = [101.10% - 40.30%] / 1.200 = 60.8% / 1.200 = 50.67%

Higher Treynor ratio suggest the better performance of the fund. So investor are advised to pick the investment with treynor ratio.

So, Sharpe Ratio tells us that A is better.

b). Sharpe Ratio(i) = [r(i) - rF] / std. dev.(i)

Sharpe Ratio(A) = [76.20% - 40.30%] / 22% = 35.90% / 22% = 1.63

Sharpe Ratio(B) = [101.10% - 40.30%] / 32% = 60.8% / 32% = 1.90

Greater the Sharpe ratio of the fund represents the higher risk adjusted performance. So the investors are advised to pick the investment with higher Sharpe ratio.

So, Sharpe Ratio tells us that B is better.

c). Jensen's Alpha(i) = r(i) - [rf + {Beta * (E(rm) - rf)}]

Jensen's Alpha(A) = 76.20% - [40.30% + {0.704 * (92.50% - 40.30%)}]

= 76.20% - [40.30% + {0.704 * 52.20%}]

= 76.20% - [40.30% + 36.75%]

= 76.20% - 77.05% = -0.85%

Jensen's Alpha(B) = 101.10% - [40.30% + {1.200 * (92.50% - 40.30%)}]

= 101.10% - [40.30% + {1.200 * 52.20%}]

= 101.10% - [40.30% + 62.64%]

= 101.10% - 102.94% = -1.84%

Jensen's Alpha of both is negative represents the under-performance of the fund.

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