Please explain how this answer is achieved. However, please explain using a scientific calculator only. - no appendix tables or excel can be used.
Generally, the fair value of an item of asset / liability is arrived by calculating the present value of expected future cash flows. Fair value of a leased asset on date of entering into a lease is calculated by calculating the present value all the future cash flows relating to the right to use of that asset, which include the periodic lease rentals to be paid in the future during the lease term, as well as the residual value obtained at the end of the lease.
Here, the future payments are discounted using 8% discount rate, which is the interest rate implicit in the lease. So, the discounting factors from Year 0 to Year 5 will be arrived by using the formula 1/(1+.08)n where n is the number of years.
Discounting factors will be:
Year | Discounting factor |
0 | 1 |
1 | 0.925926 |
2 | 0.857339 |
3 | 0.793832 |
4 | 0.73503 |
5 | 0.680583 |
Using a calculator, this can be done by the following steps:
If you want annuity factor, it is the sum of discounting factors from year 1 to year n. use memory function of calculator (M+) for this. That is, after each = in the above step, press M+. After that you can obtain the annuity factor once you press memory recall(MRC) in calculator. Annuity factor may be used when you have to find the present value of the same amount repeating annually.
Calculation of Present value
Particulars | Year | Payment date | Discounting factor | Amount | Discounted value = Amount * discounting factor |
Lease rental | 0 | 01-07-2019 | 1 | 50000 | 50000 |
Lease rental | 1 | 01-07-2020 | 0.925926 | 50000 | 46296 |
Lease rental | 2 | 01-07-2021 | 0.857339 | 50000 | 42867 |
Lease rental | 3 | 01-07-2022 | 0.793832 | 50000 | 39692 |
Residual value | 4 | 01-07-2023 | 0.73503 | 40000 | 29401 |
208256 |
As the lease payments are due at the beginning of year, the first payment is not to be discounted, as the amount is paid on the same date of valuation. So, it is taken as year 0. The next payment is happening after 1 year from the valuation date. So, it is taken as year 1 and so on.
Hope, it is clear.
Please explain how this answer is achieved. However, please explain using a scientific calculator only. -...
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