Question

. In a two-country, two-product Ricardian model, the statement Germany has a comparative advantage over France in car production relative to ship production is equivalent to (a) France having a comparative advantage over Germany in ship production. (b) France having a comparative disadvantage compared to Germany in car pro- duction and ship production (c) Germany having a comparative advantage over France in car production and ship production d) France having no comparative advantage over Germany e) France should produce cars. 5. In the Ricardian model, comparative advantage is likely to be due to (a) Scale economics. (b) Home product taste bias. (c) Greater capital availability per worker (d) Labor productivity differences (e) Political pressure 6. Consider the two PPFs below. Which of the following stateents is TRUE? Home Foren Ow 1100 약 (a) Forcign is more efficient at producing wine than Home (b) Home has the comparative advantage in cheese production. (c) The opportunity cost of producing chcese in Foreign is equal to 1/2 gallons of wine (d) There are no gains fro trade between Forcign and Home. (e) The opportunity cost of producing wine in Foreign is equal to 2 pounds of cheose

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Answer #1

a) If Germany has a comparative advantage in Car making Germany will have to in ship production. the Answer is "A", France having a comparative advantage over Germany in ship production.

b) "A" in Ricardian Economy comparative advantage is due to economies of scale.

c) "C" the opportunity cost of producing cheese in foreign in equal to 1/2 gallons of wine.  

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