Consider the following data for a one-factor economy. All portfolios are well-diversified.
Portfolio |
E(r) |
Beta |
A |
12% |
1.2 |
F |
6% |
0.0 |
Suppose that another portfolio, portfolio E, is well-diversified with a beta of 0.6 and expected return of 10%. Would an arbitrage opportunity exist? If so, what would the arbitrage strategy be?
I need to solve this for a problem set and I am really confused as to how to go about it. Any explanations and answers would be appreciated.
The first thing we should in this question is that Beta of portfolio F is zero.Therefore F is a risk free portfolio.Now we need to find whether there any arbitrage opportunities to produce higher returns.
To do that we find out RP/B,ratio of risk premium to beta(E(r)-E(rf)/Beta)
A:RP/B Ratio=(12-6)÷1.2
=5
E:RP/B=(10-6)÷.6=6.66
Since RP/B of portfolios are not equal,arbitrage opportunities exist.
Example of this arbitrage opportunity.
We see that Beta of A is 1.2,half of E and also Beta of F is 0
Therefore we can mix A and F in equal weights to produce net beta of .6.Lets call it M portfolio
Expected return from this portfolio
E(rm)=.5×12+.5×6=9%
Beta M=.5×1.2+.5×0=.6=Beta E
Expected return of E=10% and of M=9% with same beta.
Therefore arbitrage opportunity will be buying portfolio E and selling equal amount of M.
For this arbitrage profits will be
rE-rM=10-9=1%
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