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Question 2 (6 pts): For the following cashflow diagram, compute the interest rate at which the costs are equivalent to the be

only question 2 please

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Answer #1

If cost are also equally splitted into annuity of 80 then the result can be achieved

Hence FV of cost in year 1 and 2 should be 200, if 80 is coming from year 2 then year 1 FV should be 200-80=120 and cashflow outflow of year 1 should be 80.

Hence 120=80*(1+r)

Or, 1+r=120/80

Or 1+r=1.5

Or, r=0.5

Hence rate should be 50%

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