a) if the firm is a monopsonist?
b) if the firm is operating in perfectly competitive input and output markets?
2. If firms purchase an input Z up to the point at which the MRP(z) = MFC(z), then the allocation of resources is always efficient. True or False? Explain.
The diagram below gives the equilibrium answers for both monopsony and perfect competitive buyer. MFC has been calculated by dTC/dZ.
The point marked as M is the Monopsony equilibrium where the MFC = MRP and the equilibrium quantity is 200 zeds and the equilibrium price of zeds is 250 (calculated by putting equilibrium quantity in the market supply curve given in the question)
The point marked as C is the Perfect competitive equilibrium where the MRP=S and the equilibrium quantity is 300 zeds and the equilibrium price of zeds is 350.
2. The given statement is false. As can be seen from the above figure when MFC=MRP there is a deadweight loss equal to the area of triangle MEC. This is because the only efficient allocation is when market supply curve and market demand curve intersect and it happens at a point like C when S=MRP (the demand curve).
A firm which uses just one input, zeds, faces market supply function wz = 50 +...
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