As a first step, we need the zero rates for year 1 and year 2. Let's call them z1 and z2 respectively.
Bond A is a zero coupon paying bond A.
Hence, price of bond A = Face value / (1 + z1)
Hence, 95.24 = 100 / (1 + z1)
Hence, z1 = 100 / 95.24 - 1 = 5.00%
Price of Bond B = PV of all coupons + PV of Face value = 107.42 = 10 / (1 + z1) + (100 + 10) / (1 + z2)2 = 10 / (1 + 5%) + 110 / (1 + z2)2 = 9.52 + 110 / (1 + z2)2
Hence, z2 = [110 / (107.42 - 9.52)]1/2 - 1 = 6.00%
As per this zeroes, the no arbitrage price of bond E = Coupon / (1 + z1) + (Face value + coupon) / (1 + z2)2 = 25 / (1 + 5%) + 125 / (1 + 6%)2 = 135.06
However it's actual price = 138
Hence, there is an arbitrage opportunity.
Please see the year wise cash flows of the three bonds:
Year 1 | Year 2 | |
Bond A | 100 | |
Bond B | 10 | 110 |
Bond E | 25 | 125 |
Let's say we need A number of Bond A and B number of Bond B to replicate the cash flows of Bond E
Hence, year 1 cash flows = 100 x A + 10 x B = 25
Year 2 cash flows = 110 x B = 125
Hence, B = 125 / 110 = 1.1364
And hence, A = (25 - 10B) / 100 = 0.1364
Hence, we can replicate the cash flows of Bond E by a portfolio comprising of 0.1364 number of bond A and 1.1364 number of Bond B. The price of this portfolio = 0.1364 x Price of A + 1.1364 x Price of Bond B = 0.1364 x 95.24 + 1.1364 x 107.42 = $ 135.06
Hence, arbitrage strategy should be:
And the arbitrage profit = 138 - 135.06 = $ 2.94
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