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Q1 (Essential to cover) The following bonds are trading in the market: Bond Time-to-Maturity Face value Coupon rate $ 100 0%

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Answer #1

As a first step, we need the zero rates for year 1 and year 2. Let's call them z1 and z2 respectively.

Bond A is a zero coupon paying bond A.

Hence, price of bond A = Face value / (1 + z1)

Hence, 95.24 = 100 / (1 + z1)

Hence, z1 = 100 / 95.24 - 1 = 5.00%

Price of Bond B = PV of all coupons + PV of Face value = 107.42 = 10 / (1 + z1) + (100 + 10) / (1 + z2)2 = 10 / (1 + 5%) + 110 / (1 + z2)2 = 9.52 + 110 / (1 + z2)2

Hence, z2 = [110 / (107.42 - 9.52)]1/2 - 1 = 6.00%

As per this zeroes, the no arbitrage price of bond E = Coupon / (1 + z1) + (Face value + coupon) / (1 + z2)2 = 25 / (1 + 5%) + 125 / (1 + 6%)2 = 135.06

However it's actual price = 138

Hence, there is an arbitrage opportunity.

Please see the year wise cash flows of the three bonds:

Year 1 Year 2
Bond A 100
Bond B 10 110
Bond E 25 125

Let's say we need A number of Bond A and B number of Bond B to replicate the cash flows of Bond E

Hence, year 1 cash flows = 100 x A + 10 x B = 25

Year 2 cash flows = 110 x B = 125

Hence, B = 125 / 110 = 1.1364

And hence, A = (25 - 10B) / 100 = 0.1364

Hence, we can replicate the cash flows of Bond E by a portfolio comprising of 0.1364 number of bond A and 1.1364 number of Bond B. The price of this portfolio = 0.1364 x Price of A + 1.1364 x Price of Bond B = 0.1364 x 95.24 + 1.1364 x 107.42 = $ 135.06

Hence, arbitrage strategy should be:

  • (Short) Sell Bond E
  • Buy 0.1364 number of Bond A
  • Buy 1.1364 number of Bond E

And the arbitrage profit = 138 - 135.06 = $ 2.94

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