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A. Consider motion of a particle of mass m and energy E = 0 in the one-dimensional potential V(x) = -V.(d/x). Show that 1. ICan someone carefully solve questions 1, 2 and 3 in detail, please!!!

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1. for a partiele of mapa mi Energy E., Žmo tv where vi velocity of particle at timet Qud VO) - Velocitej potential V. (d/x?ana V 21. X . 2 to - fil) 1. 7-2 ie 7 +70.. from (n) Tattoo am cum AX → . M6+70 from (it) t oto + +1 2+1 ) , 7/2+1 - v . 2+13 n=-2 from (i) To to treat see more o to the need [logz]. 2 . from (1) To to a mal da into Immid [logx7 . 2.2.l

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