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hi there! i was wondering if some one could help me with 3.4 and 3.5? thnk you so much!

(i) A one year zero coupon bond, with a par value of £100 (ii) A five year UK gilt, with a coupon rate of 6% and a face value
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Answer #1

3.4

Using financial calculator

Input: FV= 1000

PV = -854.25

PMT = 5%*1000= 50

N = 10

Solve for I/Y as 7.08

The YTM is 7.08%. Since the bond is paying a coupon lower than the market interest rates exected, it is selling at a price below par.

3.5

Inflation refers to the loss of the value of money due to increasing prices of goods and services. Bondholders block their money in bonds and need to be compensated for the loss of money while they are not using the money. Hence they command a premium for their investment.

Default risk refers to the risk that the issuer of the bond may not repay the amount that has been invested with him. Again the bondholders need to be compensated for this risk by way of coupon amount. Higher the risk, higher should be the coupon rate.

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