Question

hello, im currently reading john taylors classical mechanics and I am confused on the result of him multiplying a vector and a scalar. he uses product rule. I am wondering why this is? why does product rule occur instead of (d/dt)(fr)=f(dr/dt)?

actor and f(t) is a scalar, then appropriate version of the produ d drdfr 'r) = dt dr dt who enjoys proving these kin low from the definition (1.10) you don't need to worry, and serves mention concerns the ce - with components x, y, 2, i e want to know the

Answer 1

t you can't take Here of is a sealar but, f 18 a function of time f(t), so f outside from differentiation because tere differentiation is doing Wort time soi I ft) r = faldo & df Ct g? dt dt dt Scanned with CamScanner