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You must evaluate a proposal to buy a new milling machine. The base price is $188,000, and shipping and installation costs wo

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Answer #1

Qa) Last year's expenditure is considered as a sunk cost and does not represent an incremental cash flow. Hence it should not be included in the analysis

Qb) Initial outlay = cost of machine + installation cost + working capital

= 188,000 + 11,000 + 5,000

= $204,000

Qc) Cash flows

Years 1 2 3
EBITDA 31,000 31,000 31,000
(-)Depreciation (65,670) (89,550) (29,850)
EBT (34,670) (58,550) 1,150
(-) Taxes 12,134.5 20,492.5 (402.5)
Net income (22,535.5) (38,057.5) 747.5
(+)After tax salvage value - - 78,195.5
(+)working capital - - 5,000
(+) depreciation 65,670 89,550 29,850
Annual Cash flow 43,134.5 51,492.5 113,793

Notes:

Depreciation year 1 = 199,000 × 33% = 65,670

Year 2 = 199,000 × 45%= 89,550

Year 3 = 199,000 × 15%= 29,850

Value after depreciation = 199,000 - 65,670 - 89,550 - 29,850

= 13,930

After tax salvage value = selling price - [selling price - book value] (tax rate)

112,800 - [112,800 - 13,930] (0.35)

= 112,800 - (98,870 × 0.35)

= 112,800 - 34,604.5

= 78,195.5

Qd) Using financial calculator to find the NPV

Inputs: C0= -204,000

C1= 43,134.5 frequency= 1

C2= 51,492.5  Frequency= 1

C3= 113,793. Frequency= 1

I= 14%

Npv= compute

We get, Npv of the project as ($49,733.88)

As the Npv is negative, we should not purchase the machine.

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