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Not yet answered Marked out of 200 P Hog question Periodic function f(0) = 02 in the range of give by the following figure: <
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Answer #1

Solution:

Given 2\pi- periodic function is: f(\theta) =\theta^2,~-\pi\leq \theta\leq\pi ​​​​​​.

Since the function f(\theta) =f(-\theta) is an 2\pi- periodic even function, hence it's Fourier series is a Fourier cosine series. Therefore,

a_0=\frac{2} {\pi} \int_0^\pi f( \theta) d\theta=\frac{2} {\pi} \int_0^\pi \theta^2 d\theta=\frac {2\pi^2}{3}, \\ ~~~a_n=\frac{2} {\pi} \int_0^\pi f( \theta) \cos(n\theta) d\theta=\frac{2} {\pi} \int_0^\pi \theta^2\cos(n\theta) d\theta= \frac {4}{n^2}\cos(n\pi),~n=1,2,3,....

But given that

a_0=\frac {\pi^2}{3}.

Hence the Fourier cosine series of the function f must have the form:

f(\theta) =\frac{2a_0}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n\cos(n\theta)~(\because 2 a_0=\frac {2\pi^2}{3}=2\int_0^\pi f( \theta) d\theta) \\ ~~~~~~~~~~~=\frac{\pi^2}{3}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{4\cos(n\pi)} {n^2} \cos(n\theta)\\ \therefore f(\theta) =\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n} {n^2} \cos(n\theta) ~~(\because\cos(n\pi) =(-1)^n)

Now, since the function f is continuous on [-\pi, \pi], therefore we have

f(\pi) =\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n} {n^2} \cos(n\pi)\\ ~~~~~\Rightarrow \pi^2-\frac{\pi^2}{3}=4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n} {n^2}(-1)^n\\ ~~~~~\Rightarrow \frac{2\pi^2}{3}=4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1} {n^2}\\ \therefore {\color{Red} \frac{\pi^2}{6}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1} {n^2}}.

If you have any doubt please let me know. Kindly rate the solution accordingly. Thank you.

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