Answer. $ 136.
Present value = Future value/(1+r)^n
Where
r = Discount rate/ opportunity cost
n = period
Therefore
Present value = $ 200/(1+.08)^5
= $ 200/(1.08)^5
= $ 136.11
Or
= $ 136
Alternatively
pv= cashflow at the end of 5 years x PVIF(r,n)
Pv = $200 x PVIF(8%,5 years)
pv = $200 x .680
PV = $ 136
The present value of $200 to be received 5 years from today, assuming an opportunity cost...
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