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This problem involves simple linear regression without an intercept. (a) Recall that the coefficient estimate ˆ...

This problem involves simple linear regression without an intercept.

(a) Recall that the coefficient estimate ˆ β for the linear regression of Y onto X without an intercept is given by (3.38). Under what circumstance is the coefficient estimate for the regression of X onto Y the same as the coefficient estimate for the regression of Y onto X?

(b) Generate an example in R with n = 100 observations in which the coefficient estimate for the regression of X onto Y is different from the coefficient estimate for the regression of Y onto X.

(c) Generate an example in R with n = 100 observations in which the coefficient estimate for the regression of X onto Y is the same as the coefficient estimate for the regression of Y onto X.

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Answer #1

Under what circumstance is the coefficient estimate for the regression of X onto Y the same as the coefficient estimate for the regression of Y onto X

Var(X) and Var(Y) are equal, which is to say that both X and Y have equal tendency to be away from the mean. They should be the same when the coefficient is 1, and there is no noise, different otherwise.

(b) and (C)

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