Part1
Present worth (PW) of lease :
Cash flows are
Time cashflows
0 -125000
1 to 4 -210000 p.a. ( lease rental)
-210000× (1-.28)= $ -151200 p.a. after tax
4 125000
PW = -125000-151200×AF(17%,4) +125000× PVF(17%,4)
AF(17%,4) = annuity factor = (1-1.17^-4)/.17 = 2.74
PVF(17%,4)= present value factor= 1/1.17^4 = .5337
PW = -125000 - 151200× 2.74 +125000×.5337 = -$ 472576
PW of purchase
Cash flows
At time 0
Initial investment = $630000
From time 1 to 4
After tax annual cost = 42000×(1-.28)= $30240
PV of this = 30240×AF(17%,4)= 30240×2.74= $82858
Depreciation as per MACRS Ads, Since question doesn't provide details which method to use we assume that SLM os being used as per this method annual Depreciation = 630000/4= $157500
Annual depreciation tax shield(DTS) = tax rate× 157500= .28×157500= $44100
PV of this Tax shield = 44100×2.74= $120834
At time 4
Sale of equipment = $378000
Capital gain= 378000 because ads SLM depreciate the value toll 0
Capital gains tax= 378000×15%= $56700
After tax sale= 378000- 56700= $321300
PV of this = 321300×PVF(17%,4)= 321300×.5337= 171478
Now the PW for purchase is given by
PW= PV of DTS+ PV of after tax sale - PV of after tax cost - intial cost
= 120834 +171478-82858-630000= - $420546
Since PW of total cost in less in option 2, we should go with this i.e. we should buy the equipment rather taking it on lease.
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