Consider an asset that costs $705,000 and is depreciated straight-line to zero over its 9-year tax life. The asset is to be used in a 6-year project; at the end of the project, the asset can be sold for $189,000. If the relevant tax rate is 24 percent, what is the aftertax cash flow from the sale of this asset?
first let us know the accumulated depreciation on this asset by the end of year 6:
(cost - salvage value) / life in years * number of years expired
($705,000 - 0) / 9 years * 6 years
=>$470,000.
book value of asset = purchase price - accumulated depreciation
=>705,000 -470,000
=>235,000.
now
sale value | 189,000 |
less: book value | (235,000) |
loss on sale of asset | (46,000) |
tax savings on loss of sale = 46,000 *24% =>$11,040.
This tax saving will be a cash inflow.
now,
after tax cash flow from sale of asset = sale value + tax savings
=>189,000+11,040
=>$200,040.
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> why the salvage value equal to 0?
Dung1234567 Thu, Nov 25, 2021 1:19 AM