ANSWER:
The calculations have been done in excel.
year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 |
initial cost | -40,000 | ||||||||
benefits | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | 10,000 | |
o and m costs | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | -2,000 | |
salvage value | 5,000 | ||||||||
cash flows | -40,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 8,000 | 13,000 |
irr | 13.19% |
in excel we will use the irr formula.
=irr(cash flow in year 0 till cash flow in year 8)
=irr(-40,000,8000,8000,8000,8000,8000,8000,8000,8000)
= 13.19%
our answer is closest to option a of 13.25% (difference is due to calculations manually and in excel).
and hence option a is the right answer.
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