Solution:
Journal Entries
Date |
General Journal |
Debit |
Credit |
|
1) |
Year 1 July 1 |
Cash |
$73,100,469 |
|
Bonds Payable |
$65,000,000 |
|||
Premium on Bonds Payable (Balancing figure) |
$8,100,469 |
|||
(To record issuance of bond) |
||||
2(a) |
Year 1 Dec 31 |
Interest Expense |
$3,494,977 |
|
Premium on Bonds Payable (Amortization) (Refer Note) |
$405,023 |
|||
Interest Payable or Cash (Face value 65,000,000*12%*1/2) |
$3,900,000 |
|||
(To record first semi-annual interest payment) |
||||
2(b) |
Year 2 June 30 |
Interest Expense |
$3,494,977 |
|
Premium on Bonds Payable (Amortization) (Refer Note) |
$405,023 |
|||
Interest Payable or Cash (Face value 65,000,000*12%*1/2) |
$3,900,000 |
|||
(To record first semi-annual interest payment) |
Straight line method
Semi-annual bond premium amortization = Total Premium / Semi-annual period to maturity
= $8,100,469 / 10 Years*2
= $8,100,469 / 20
= $405,023.45 or $405,023
Part 3 – Total Interest Expense for Year 1 = $3,494,977
Part 4 – Yes, the bond proceeds always be greater than the face value of the bonds when the contract rate is greater than the market interest rate.
Reason behind this is the investors are more interest to invest in the bonds paying higher interest in comparison to what they will get from the market. So the bonds are issued at premium.
Part 5 – Please provide the Present Value tables to solve this part.
Hope the above calculations, working and explanations are clear to you and help you in understanding the concept of question.... please rate my answer...in case any doubt, post a comment and I will try to resolve the doubt ASAP…thank you
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