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A. Contribution Margin Ratio:
Current Approach | Automated Approach | |
Contribution Margin Ratio: Contribution/Sales*100 | 800,000/2,000,000*100 = 40% | 1,600,000/2,000,000*100 = 80% |
B. Break Even Sales:
Current Approach | Automated Approach | |
Fixed costs/Contribution Margin (%) Fixed Costs are given in question. Contribution Margin Ratio is as above |
200,000/40*100 = 500,000 | 600,000/80*100= 750,000 |
C.Margin of Safety:
Current Approach | Automated Approach | |
Given sales - BEP Sales Sales is given in question BEP Sales as computed above |
2,000,000 - 500,000 = 1,500,000 1500,000/2000,000*100 = 75% |
2,000,000 - 750,000 = 1250000 1250,000/2,000,000*100 = 62.5% |
Interpretation: Since fixed costs element in Automated Approach is higher and the contribution ratio is also higher, the margin of safety is lesser than the current approach.
D. Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution/Operating Income.
Current Approach | Automated Approach | |
Degree of Operating leverage | 800,000/600,000 = 1.33 | 1600,000/1000000 = 1.6 |
If sales fall by 10% =>
Current Approach | Automated Approach | |
Sales | 2,000,000 * 0.9 = 1,800,000 | 2,000,000*0.9 = 1,800,000 |
Contribution Margin | 40%*1800000 = 720,000 | 80%*1800000 = 1440000 |
Fixed Costs (given) | 200,000 | 600,000 |
Operating Profit | 520,000 | 840,000 |
So,If there was 10% decrease in sales, the profit would be decrease by (600,000-520,000)/600,000*100 = 13.33% in current approach as compared to (1000000-840000)/1000000*100 = 16% under automated approach.
E. Indifference Point ie the point at which operating income under both level of sale are same.
Let sales be X
So,
Contribution - Fixed Cost = profit.
Hence
0.4X - 200,000 = 0.8X - 600,000
So X = 1,000,000.
Hence when sales = $ 1,000,000 operating profit is the same under both the approaches.
Please comment in case of any query regarding the solution.
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