Suppose P (n) is a property such that
1. P(0), P(1), P(2) are all true,
2. for all integers k ≥ 0, if P (k) is true, then P (3k) is true. Must it follow that P (n) is true for all integers n ≥ 0? If yes, explain why; if no, give a counterexample.
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