If a particle in a stationary state is bound, the expectation value of its momentum must be 0. (a) In words, why? (b) Prove it. Starting from the general expression (5-31) with p in place of Q, integrate by parts, then argue that the result is identically 0. Be careful that your argument is somehow based on the particle being bound; a free particle certainly may have a nonzero momentum. (Note: Without loss of generality, ψ(x) may be chosen to be real.)
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