Let fn be a sequence of frequency functions with fn(x) = 1/ 2 if x = ±( 1/ 2 )n and fn(x) = 0 otherwise. Show that lim fn(x) = 0 for all x, which means that the frequency functions do not converge to a frequency function, but that there exists a cdf F such that lim Fn(x) = F(x).
We need at least 10 more requests to produce the solution.
0 / 10 have requested this problem solution
The more requests, the faster the answer.