Question

1. True or False: A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) can be used on a semi-conscious or conscious individual, while an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) should only be used on an unconscious individual.
   • True
   • False
2. True or False: An individual in PEA has an organized cardiac rhythm on ECG.
   • True
   • False
3. True or False: Symptomatic bradycardia and poor perfusion may degrade into cardiac arrest.
   • True
   • False
4. True or False: The definition of stable tachycardia is a fast but constant heart rate between 80 and 120 beats per minute.
   • True
   • False
5. True or False: Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability.
   • True
   • False
6. True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes.
   • True
   • False
7. True or False: 100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time.
   • True
   • False
8. True or False: If atropine is unsuccessful in treating bradycardia, it is doubtful that the individual will respond to any other interventions.
   • True
   • False
9. True or False: Transcutaneous pacing should be used on a bradycardic individual with insufficient perfusion before any other intervention.
   • True
   • False
10. True or False: If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider.
    • True
    • False
11. True or False: Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual.
    • True
    • False
12. What does the BLS Survey want you to assess which of the following?
    • Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
    • Responsiveness, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs
    • Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get an AED, Circulation, Defibrillation
    • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
13. What amount of time should ACLS providers spend on chest compressions to minimize interruptions?
    • 10 seconds
    • 30 seconds
    • 2 seconds
    • 5 seconds
14. Hyperventillation (over ventillation) can be harmful because it:
    • Increases intrathoracic pressure
    • Decreases venous return to the heart
    • Diminishes cardiac output
    • All of the above
15. Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway. How can they be removed?
    • Bag-mask ventllation
    • Laryngeal tube
    • None of the above
    • Suctioning
16. What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
    • Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
    • Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
    • Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
    • Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
17. In an individual with ventricular fibrillation (VF), what should occur immediately following a shock?
    • Resume CPR.
    • Give epinephrine.
    • Analyze rhythm.
    • Check pulse.
18. Which of the following is an essential component of high-quality CPR?
    • Push hard and fast.
    • Minimize interruptions.
    • Switch rescuers every two minutes.
    • All of the above
19. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered per shock?
    • 360 J
    • 150 J
    • 200 J
    • 300 J
20. Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how many minutes?
    • One minute
    • Five minutes
    • Two minutes
    • 10 minutes
21. For persistent VF/pulseless VT, vasopressors that may be given during CPR include:
    • Amiodarone and diltiazem
    • Epinephrine
    • Magnesium and potassium
    • Epinephrine and dopamine
22. Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Hypoxia
    • Hypothermia
    • Hyperventilation
23. Medications administered in the early treatment of suspected ACS include:
    • Oxycodone, aspirin, nitrous oxide, and morphine
    • Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine
    • Oxygen, vasopressin, nitric oxide, and meperidine
    • Oxytocin, ibuprofen, nitroglycerine, and fentanyl
24. What is the only means of identifying ST-elevation MI (STEMI)?
    • Fibrinolytic checklist
    • Coronary angiography
    • None of the above
    • 12-lead ECG
25. Indications for transcutaneous pacing (TCP) include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Unstable third-degree AV block
    • Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia
    • Bradycardia with symptomatic ventricular escape rhythms
    • Asystole
26. Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than:
    • 100 beats per minute
    • 120 beats per minute
    • 150 beats per minute
    • 90 beats per minute
27. Serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually NOT seen with ventricular rates less than:
    • 200 beats per minute
    • 250 beats per minute
    • 150 beats per minute
    • 120 beats per minute
28. What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia (heart rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of shock?
    • Synchronized cardioversion
    • Defibrillation
    • Obtain a 12-lead ECG
    • Administer a calcium channel blocker
29. Which of the following is true concerning ischemic strokes?
    • They account for 80% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain.
    • They account for 87% of all strokes and are usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain.
    • They account for 50% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain.
    • They account for 13% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain.
30. Critical in-hospital goals of stroke care include a neurological assessment by the stroke team and a CT scan performed within ________ of hospital arrival.
    • 60 minutes
    • 10 minutes
    • 25 minutes
    • 45 minutes
31. The chambers of the heart responsible for circulating deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation are the following:
    • Right atrium and right ventricle
    • Left ventricle and right atrium
    • Left atrium and left ventricle
    • Left atrium and right ventricle
32. What does the PR interval on an ECG reflect?
    • Time between atrial and ventricular contraction
    • Opening of mitral valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
    • T wave inversion
    • Width of septum
33. You are alone when you encounter an individual in cardiac arrest. They are not breathing, have no pulse, and have no suspected cervical spine trauma. Which maneuver should you use to open the airway?
    • Jaw-thrust maneuver
    • Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
    • Head-tilt only
    • Blind finger-sweeps
34. What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
    • Endotracheal tube (ET)
    • Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
    • Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
    • Laryngeal tube
35. According to the 2015 AHA update, high-quality CPR is defined as:
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches
    • 100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
    • 100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than 2.4 inches
36. ACLS recommends minimizing interruption of chest compressions for which of the following:
    • Ventilation
    • Rhythm checks
    • Shock delivery
    • All of the above
37. Defibrillators have two different designs for delivering energy. What are they?
    • A. Monophasic
    • B. Bicameral
    • C. Biphasic
    • D. Both A and C
38. Thirty ____________ and two ____________ equal one cycle of CPR.
    • Ventilations, compressions
    • Chest compressions, jaw lifts
    • Chest compressions, pulse checks
    • Chest compressions, ventilations
39. After performing CPR for two minutes on an individual in asystole, what is the ACLS trained provider’s next intervention?
    • AED shock administration
    • IV or IO access for atropine administration
    • Advanced airway insertion
    • IV or IO access for epinephrine administration
40. All of the following can be considered an underlying cause of pulseless electrical activity EXCEPT:
    • Hypovolemia
    • Hypoxia
    • Hyperglycemia
    • Acute toxin ingestion
41. All of the following are bradycardic rhythms EXCEPT:
    • First degree heart block
    • Third degree heart block
    • All of the above are bradycardic rhythms.
    • Ventricular fibrillation
42. Cardioversion should not be delayed if:
    • A. The individual suddenly deteriorates
    • B. Tachycardia is causing the instability
    • C. The individual becomes pulseless
    • D. Both A and B
43. A _____________ is required to assess for STEMI.
    • Vagal maneuvers
    • 12-lead ECG
    • Defibrillator
    • Transcutaneous pacing
44. For appropriate treatment, it is vital to discern if the QRS wave is ___________in a tachycardic individual.
    • Positive or negative
    • Present or absent
    • Wide or narrow
    • Right or left
45. Which of the following is the primary treatment in management of ventricular fibrillation?
    • Carotid massage
    • Defibrillation
    • Sedatives
    • All of the above
46. All of the following are goals of resuscitation EXCEPT:
    • Maintain blood pressure.
    • Obtain normal sinus rhythm.
    • Adequate perfusion.
    • Decrease glucose level.
47. Which of the following side effects may be expected during amiodarone infusion?
    • Hypotension
    • Bradycardia
    • Gastrointestinal toxicity
    • All of the above
48. Within what time period of arrival to the ED is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) recommended for STEMI individuals?
    • 10 minutes
    • 20 minutes
    • 90 minutes
    • 150 minutes
49. Fast coronary reperfusion times are associated with:
    • Improved outcomes
    • Sinus bradycardia
    • Increased risk of preeclampsia
    • Atrioventricular block
50. Which of the following can be considered a bradycardic rhythm?
    • A. Ventricular fibrillation
    • B. Ventricular tachycardia
    • C. Third degree AV block
    • D. Both A and B

Answer 1

1)True

True Explaination :- Nasopharyngeal airway(NPA) are used to keep the airway open and can be used with the patient who are conscious or semi- conscious .For example ,semi-conscious patients may need an NPA because they are at risk for airway obstruction but cannot have an OPA placed due to an intact gag reflex.

2)True

True Explaination:- Pulseless Electric Activity(PEA) is an organised electric rhythm that is characterised by an absence or insufficient mechanical ventricular activity to produce a detectable pulse.

3)True

True Explanation:- Bradycardia with poor perfusion can be life threatening in some cases.The patient should be placed on a cardiac monitor and 12 lead ECG should be obtained.Symptomatic bradycardia is often treated with atropine.

4)True

True Explaination:- A heart rate faster than 100 beats per minutes (bpm) is considered to be stable tachycardia.A heart rate greater than 80 beats per minutes significantly increases the risk of cardiovascular complication,morbidity and mortality and that heart rate greater than 80-85 beats per minutes can be considered as a threshold for tachycardia.