Question

1. True or False: A respiratory rate consistently less than 10 or greater than 60 breaths per minute in a child of any age is abnormal and suggests the presence of a potentially serious problem.
   • True
   • False
2. True or False: PALS management of respiratory distress/failure is adjusted based on the severity of the current condition.
   • True
   • False
3. True or False: Shock may occur with a normal, increased, or decreased systemic arterial pressure.
   • True
   • False
4. True or False: Respiratory failure or shock is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children and infants.
   • True
   • False
5. True or False: Medication administration via ET tube is preferred due to its consistency.
   • True
   • False
6. True or False: When treating obstructive shock, you should focus on diagnosing and correcting the cause.
   • True
   • False
7. The initial assessment consists of assessing all of the following EXCEPT:
   • Deformity
   • Color
   • Consciousness
   • Breathing
8. All of the following assessments are included in the initial assessment EXCEPT:
   • Airway
   • Exposure
   • Cardiac arrest
   • Breathing
9. Simple measures to restore upper airway patency in a child may include any of the following EXCEPT:
   • Use airway adjuncts (e.g., nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airways)
   • Using the head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver to open the airway
   • Performing foreign body airway-obstruction-relief techniques
   • Cricothyrotomy
10. In assessing level of responsiveness, the AVPU scale consists of all of the following ratings EXCEPT:
    • Airway
    • Voice
    • Alert
    • Unresponsive
11. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is scored based on response to all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Minute ventilation
    • Motor response
    • Eye opening
    • Verbal response
12. Which of the following symptoms demonstrate increased work of breathing?
    • Grunting
    • Nasal flaring
    • Use of accessory thoracic muscles
    • All of the above
13. Medications used in the treatment of croup may include:
    • Dexamethasone
    • Nebulized epinephrine
    • Heliox (Oxygen)
    • All of the above
14. Common causes of lower airway obstruction include:
    • Foreign body aspiration and croup
    • Bronchiolitis and asthma
    • Pneumonia and pulmonary edema
    • Pleural effusion and bronchospasm
15. Which type of shock leads to fluid loss due to diarrhea?
    • Distributive
    • Hypovolemic
    • Cardiogenic
    • Obstructive
16. When providing fluid resuscitation in children, how should intravenous fluid boluses be given?
    • 20 mL/kg bolus over 5 to 20 minutes
    • 40 mL/kg bolus over 5 to 20 minutes
    • 10 mL/kg bolus over 5 to 20 minutes
    • 30 mL/kg bolus over 5 to 20 minutes
17. Pharmacologic agents that may be used in the treatment of shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Diltiazem
    • Norepinephrine
    • Milrinone
    • Dopamine
18. What is caused by an accumulation of blood in the pericardial space that results in impaired systemic venous return, impaired ventricular filling, and reduced cardiac output?
    • Tension pneumothorax
    • Ductal-dependent congenital heart lesions
    • Massive pulmonary embolism
    • Cardiac tamponade
19. If bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats per minute) with a pulse is associated with cardiopulmonary compromise despite effective oxygenation and ventilation, what is the next step in management?
    • Administer atropine.
    • Administer epinephrine.
    • Consider cardiac pacing.
    • Perform CPR.
20. The first energy dose recommended for synchronized cardioversion for unstable SVT or VT with a pulse that causes cardiovascular instability is:
    • 1 to 2 Joules per kg
    • 0.1 to 0.5 Joules per kg
    • 0.5 to 1 Joules per kg
    • 3 to 5 Joules per kg
21. What is the initial drug of choice for SVT treatment?
    • Atropine
    • Amiodarone
    • Procainamide
    • Adenosine
22. Any organized electrical activity observed on an ECG or cardiac monitor in a individual with no palpable pulse is referred to as:
    • Asystole
    • Ventricular fibrillation
    • PEA (pulseless electrical activity)
    • Ventricular tachycardia without pulses
23. Drugs that can be administered down the endotracheal (ET) tube include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Adenosine
    • Epinephrine
    • Lidocaine
    • Atropine
24. The purpose of defibrillation is to:
    • Reset the electrical systems of the heart allowing a normal rhythm a chance to return
    • Recharge the heart
    • Provide electrically stimulated contraction of the heart
    • Treat symptomatic bradycardia
25. The first management step in cardiac arrest is to:
    • Begin high-quality CPR
    • Stimulate more forceful myocardial contractility
    • Suppress or treat arrhythmias
    • Increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures and blood flow
26. When using a manual defibrillator, what is the recommended initial dose?
    • 2 to 4 J/kg
    • 1 to 2 J/kg
    • 6 to 8 J/kg
    • 4 to 6 J/kg
27. When should a child be transferred to tertiary care?
    • Immediately
    • After the first phase of resuscitation management
    • If the child remains comatose post resuscitation
    • As soon as possible
28. Poor ventilation causes which of the following:
    • Respiratory acidosis
    • Hypocarbia
    • Hyperglycemia
    • None of the above
29. All of the following are causes of obstructive shock EXCEPT:
    • Congenital heart malformations
    • Tension pneumothorax
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Acute blood loss
30. Which is a common cause of quiet tachypnea?
    • High fever
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Upper respiratory obstruction
    • None of the above
31. Which statement about sinus tachycardia is NOT correct?
    • Sinus tachycardia may occur in response to stress.
    • Sinus tachycardia may occur in response to fever.
    • Sinus tachycardia often indicates impending arrest.
    • Sinus tachycardia is a normal, non-dangerous rhythm.
32. A complete heart block is also known as:
    • Third degree AV block
    • Mobitz type II block
    • First degree AV block
    • Mobitz type I block
33. Which statement concerning cardioversion for unstable pediatric indviduals is NOT correct?
    • Cardioversion is indicated for wide complex tachycardia with poor perfusion.
    • Sedate them before cardioversion when possible, but do not delay cardioversion for sedation.
    • Cardioversion should not be done on pediatric indviduals under any circumstances.
    • Cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
34. Which of the following is a wide complex tachycardia?
    • Ventricular tachycardia
    • Sinus tachycardia
    • Supraventricular tachycardia
    • Atrial flutter
35. Common signs of compensated shock include:
    • Increased heart rate
    • Wide pulse pressure
    • Hypertension
    • Increased urine output
36. Which statement about tachycardia is NOT correct?
    • Sinus tachycardia is commonly a dangerous rhythm that can quickly deteriorate to cardiac arrest.
    • Tachycardia may be a normal, non-dangerous heart rate in response to stress or anxiety.
    • A heart rate of 175 bpm is within normal range for a child up to two
    • A normal heart rate for an infant may be twice as fast as a normal heart rate for an older child.
37. When should cardiac pacing be administered to an individual with symptomatic bradycardia with a pulse?
    • If the individual does not respond to CPR
    • If the individual does not respond to CPR and pharmacological support
    • None of the above
    • If the bradycardia is the result of a complete heart block or an abnormal sinus node function
38. When should vasopressors be administered during the management of septic shock?
    • If the individual develops pulmonary edema
    • Vasopressors are never used for septic shock.
    • Always indicated as soon as IV access is obtained
    • If the individual is severely hypotensive despite proper fluid management
39. Uninterrupted chest compressions are critical when treating individuals in cardiac arrest. You should only interrupt chest compressions to do the following:
    • Evaluate cardiac rhythm and administer shocks.
    • Administer medications.
    • Place an endotracheal tube.
    • Obtain central IV access
40. Which medication is used for the treatment of metabolic acidosis?
    • Magnesium sulfate
    • Sodium chloride
    • Milrinone
    • Sodium bicarbonate
41. Which statement about cardiovascular support during post-resuscitation management is NOT correct?
    • Cardiac dysfunction can last for hours after resuscitation.
    • Invasive techniques should never be used to monitor blood pressure in individuals with poor perfusion or frequent arrhythmia.
    • You should monitor urine output.
    • Shock and respiratory failure may produce decreased tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which may cause continued cardiovascular problems.
42. Which statement about sinus bradycardia is correct?
    • Sinus bradycardia always originates at the AV node.
    • Sinus bradycardia often is the result of increased metabolic demand.
    • Sinus bradycardia may be an abnormal heart rate resulting from a pathological condition.
    • Sinus bradycardia is never a normal rhythm.
43. Children under the age of ten have _________ normal heart rates when awake compared to adults.
    • Completely unpredictable
    • Roughly equal
    • Lower
    • Higher
44. Which of the following is NOT part of the primary circulatory assessment?
    • Capillary refill time
    • Blood pressure
    • Pulse
    • Arterial blood gas analysis
45. You should immediately begin chest compressions on a bradycardic individual if they:
    • A. Have heart rate below 50 bpm
    • B. Show signs of respiratory distress
    • C. Show signs of poor perfusion
    • D. Both A and B
46. Untreated shock can lead to:
    • Cardiopulmonary problems
    • Hypotension
    • Cardiac arrest
    • All of the above
47. Which statement about post-resuscitation management is correct?
    • Acid-base and electrolyte imbalances may need to be corrected.
    • It is important to prevent hypothermia after cerebral insult.
    • Analgesics and sedatives should never be used due to potential respiratory problems.
    • Post-resuscitation management should not start until organ systems are functioning normally.
48. Which statement about albumin is NOT correct?
    • Albumin is a plasma volume expander.
    • Albumin is used in hypovolemia.
    • Albumin is indicated for shock, trauma, and burns.
    • Albumin should be used by mouth only.
49. When can post-resuscitation management be necessary?
    • After cardiac arrest
    • After severe shock
    • After respiratory failure
    • All of the above
50. All of the following are examples of upper airway obstruction EXCEPT:
    • Laryngitis
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Croup
    • Asthma

Answer 1

Ans) 1) True

Explaination:

Tachypnea in the newborn is defined as a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute, bradypnea is a respiratory rate of less than 30 breaths per minute, while apnea is a cessation of breath for at least 20 s.

2) True

Explaination:

- PALS management of respiratory distress/failure is adjusted based on the severity of the current condition.

- For example, mild asthma is treated with bronchodilator inhalers, but severe asthma (status asthmaticus) may require ET intubation.

3) False

Explaination:

Shock syndrome is a critical condition of systemic tissue hypoperfusion that results from microcirculatory failure (i.e., decreased blood pressure or perfusion).

4) True

Explaination:

- Cardiopulmonary arrest among infants and children is typically caused by progressive tissue hypoxia and acidosis as the result of respiratory failure and/or shock.

- This is in contrast to adults, for whom the most common cause of cardiac arrest is ischemic cardiovascular disease.

Answer 2

True answering questions for me