Question

1. True or False: Synchronized cardioversion is appropriate for treating an unknown wide complex tachycardia.
   • True
   • False
2. True or False: A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) can be used on a semi-conscious or conscious individual, while an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) should only be used on an unconscious individual.
   • True
   • False
3. True or False: Any bradycardia less than 60 beats per minute is a pathologic event.
   • True
   • False
4. True or False: Transcutaneous pacing should be used on an individual with bradycardia and inadequate perfusion if atropine is ineffective and the individual is exhibiting severe symptoms.
   • True
   • False
5. True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes.
   • True
   • False
6. True or False: Transcutaneous pacing should be used on a bradycardic individual with insufficient perfusion before any other intervention.
   • True
   • False
7. The BLS Survey includes assessing which of the following?
   • Responsiveness, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs
   • Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get an AED, Circulation, Defibrillation
   • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
   • Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
8. Hyperventillation (over ventillation) can be harmful because it:
   • Increases intrathoracic pressure
   • Decreases venous return to the heart
   • Diminishes cardiac output
   • All of the above
9. Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT:
   • Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
   • Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
   • Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
   • Bag-mask ventilation
10. The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced airway is:
    • 30:01:00
    • 30:02:00
    • 15:02
    • 20:01
11. In an individual with ventricular fibrillation (VF), what should occur immediately following a shock?
    • Check pulse.
    • Analyze rhythm.
    • Resume CPR.
    • Give epinephrine.
12. Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how many minutes?
    • Five minutes
    • 10 minutes
    • Two minutes
    • One minute
13. Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Hyperventilation
    • Hypoxia
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Hypothermia
14. The cardiac arrest rhythm associated with NO discernible electrical activity on the ECG is termed as _________?
    • Asystole
    • Pulseless electrical activity
    • Ventricular tachycardia
    • Bradycardia
15. Early access to medical care, from EMS through reperfusion, improves overall outcomes by:
    • Delaying onset of hypothermia
    • Faster access to medications that increase blood clotting
    • Saving more heart tissue from cell death
    • Increased access to social support services
16. Symptoms suggestive of ACS may include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Unexplained shortness of breath with or without chest discomfort
    • Headache and blurry vision
    • Chest discomfort with lightheadedness, sweating, or nausea
    • Uncomfortable pressure in the center of the chest
17. Medications administered in the early treatment of suspected ACS include:
    • Oxycodone, aspirin, nitrous oxide, and morphine
    • Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine
    • Oxygen, vasopressin, nitric oxide, and meperidine
    • Oxytocin, ibuprofen, nitroglycerine, and fentanyl
18. Signs of unstable tachycardia may include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Acute heart failure
    • Hypotension
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Ischemic chest discomfort
19. Serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually NOT seen with ventricular rates less than:
    • 150 beats per minute
    • 200 beats per minute
    • 120 beats per minute
    • 250 beats per minute
20. What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia (heart rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of shock?
    • Obtain a 12-lead ECG
    • Defibrillation
    • Synchronized cardioversion
    • Administer a calcium channel blocker
21. If uncertain whether or not an individual is an appropriate candidate for synchronized cardioversion, the ACLS trained provider should:
    • Seek expert consultation.
    • Obtain a coronary CT scan.
    • Provide increased oxygenation.
    • Defer cardioversion until symptoms become irreversible.
22. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) identifies stroke on the basis of the following physical findings EXCEPT:
    • Arm drift
    • Abnormal gait
    • Facial droop
    • Abnormal speech
23. The chambers of the heart responsible for circulating deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation are the following:
    • Right atrium and right ventricle
    • Left atrium and left ventricle
    • Left atrium and right ventricle
    • Left ventricle and right atrium
24. Under normal circumstances, what is the largest chamber of the heart?
    • Right ventricle
    • Left ventricle
    • Left atrium
    • Right atrium
25. Where is the start of the mechanical movement of the heart generally thought to begin?
    • Left ventricle
    • Left atrium
    • Right ventricle
    • Right atrium
26. What does the QRS complex on an ECG reflect?

    qt interval

    • Ventricular conduction
    • AV block
    • Atrial contraction
    • Ventricular fibrillation
27. All of the following are considered advanced airways EXCEPT:
    • Laryngeal tube
    • Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
    • Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
    • Endotracheal tube (ET)
28. According to the 2015 Guidelines, high-quality CPR is defined as:
    • 100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches but not greater than 2.4 inches
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches
    • 100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
29. This is an example of which type of heart rhythm?

    sal-42-acls

    • Ventricular fibrillation
    • Atrial flutter
    • Pulseless electrical activity
    • Atrial fibrillation
30. ACLS recommends minimizing interruption of chest compressions for which of the following:
    • Ventilation
    • Rhythm checks
    • Shock delivery
    • All of the above
31. This is an example of which type of heart rhythm?

    sal-44-acls

    • Asystole
    • Atrial fibrillation
    • Pulseless electrical activity
    • Ventricular flutter
32. Thirty ____________ and two ____________ equal one cycle of CPR.
    • Chest compressions, pulse checks
    • Chest compressions, jaw lifts
    • Ventilations, compressions
    • Chest compressions, ventilations
33. According to the 2015 Guidelines, stopping chest compressions for any reason, such as pulse checks, should be limited to less than:
    • 10 seconds
    • 60 seconds
    • 3 seconds
    • 30 seconds
34. Which of the following would be your next action if the rhythm is unshockable, and there is no pulse?
    • Resume CPR and prepare AED to administer a shock.
    • Administer atropine if the individual has a fast heart rate.
    • None of the above
    • Immediately resume CPR.
35. All of the following can be considered an underlying cause of pulseless electrical activity EXCEPT:
    • Hypovolemia
    • Acute toxin ingestion
    • Hypoxia
    • Hyperglycemia
36. Which of the following can be a result of prolonged asystole?
    • Severe brain damage
    • Lack of oxygen to vital organs
    • Severe myocardial ischemia
    • All of the above
37. Which of the following can represent a correct treatment choice for an individual in asystole?
    • A. Epinephrine
    • B. Synchronized shock with an AED
    • C. Vasopressin
    • D. Both A and C
38. An important link in the STEMI Chain of Survival is improving myocardial perfusion by:
    • Defibrillation
    • Chest compressions
    • CPR
    • Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolytics
39. Individuals experiencing a suspected ACS should be transported to:
    • A facility with trauma care
    • An appropriate center for triage
    • A facility that performs PCI
    • A center that has a dedicated stroke team
40. Which of the following is an alternative to atropine in treating bradycardia?
    • Dopamine
    • Epinephrine
    • Transcutaneous pacing
    • All of the above are alternatives.
41. Tachycardia may reduce coronary perfusion and cause a myocardial infarction, which is also known as a(n):
    • Heart attack
    • Stenosis of the heart
    • Irregular ventricular rhythm
    • Stroke
42. A _____________ is required to assess for STEMI.
    • Defibrillator
    • 12-lead ECG
    • Transcutaneous pacing
    • Vagal maneuvers
43. For appropriate treatment, it is vital to discern if the QRS wave is ___________in a tachycardic individual.
    • Wide or narrow
    • Present or absent
    • Positive or negative
    • Right or left
44. Which of the following is/are correct regarding individuals with acute stroke ?
    • Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel.
    • Ischemic stroke is caused by the occlusion of an artery.
    • Time between symptoms onset and time of arrival at an ED are critical to individual's survival.
    • All of the above
45. In confirming and monitoring placement of the ET tube, the 2015 ACLS guidelines suggest what?
    • Glucose check
    • Quantitative waveform capnography
    • Blood pressure monitoring
    • Pulse oximetry
46. Which of the following is the primary treatment in management of ventricular fibrillation?
    • Carotid massage
    • Sedatives
    • All of the above
    • Defibrillation
47. Why should therapeutic hypothermia be considered in an adult comatose person during the post-cardiac arrest period?
    • To re-establish circulation
    • To prevent tachycardia
    • To prevent sepsis
    • To protect the brain/organs
48. All of the following are goals of resuscitation EXCEPT:
    • Obtain normal sinus rhythm.
    • Adequate perfusion.
    • Decrease glucose level.
    • Maintain blood pressure.
49. All of the following statements regarding asystole are correct EXCEPT:
    • Asystolic rhythms can result in severe myocardial ischemia.
    • A pulse will not be present in an asystolic individual.
    • Vital organs can be permanently damaged.
    • All heart tissue immediately dies when an individual enters asystole.
50. Which of the following would be appropriate actions following transcutaneous pacing?
    • Consult a specialist.
    • Confirm ET tube placement with quantitative waveform capnography.
    • Follow VT/VF algorithm
    • Administer amiodarone.

Answer 1

●Wide complex tachycardia is a medical emergency which is mostly considered to be ventricular tachycardia. The first line of treatment is administration of anti arrhythmic drugs or with synchronized cardioversion.

Ans:True

●When a patient is unconscious or semiconscious the airway of the patient can be kept open by using a nasopharyngeal airway because of the presence of cough reflex and gag reflex.Oropharyngeal airways can be used in unconscious patient because of absence of cough and gag reflex

Ans:True

●Bradycardia is a state when the heart rate is less than 60bpm. Pathological events are not expected or happening in a client who is fit .Sinus bradycardia can be observed in athletes. Pathological events can occurs in individual who are not physically active and having a decreased heart rate

Ans:False

●In case of bradycardia the first line of treatment should be with atropine to elevate the heart rate.It has to be repeated once in 3 minutes depending upon the patient status

Ans:False

Answer 2

True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes.

Answer 3

True, false, true, true, true, false, b, c, d, c, a, d, d, c, a, b, b, b, d, c, a, a, d, a, c, a, b, c, b, b, a, d, a, c, c, d, b, b,