Dr. Harold should choose the offer which has the best net present value (NPV). Hence, we shall calculate NPV for each offer separately.
Offer 1: -
Year | PVF @10% | Amount | PV |
6 | 0.56 | 2,00,000 | 1,12,895 |
7 | 0.51 | 2,00,000 | 1,02,632 |
8 | 0.47 | 2,00,000 | 93,301 |
9 | 0.42 | 2,00,000 | 84,820 |
10 | 0.39 | 2,00,000 | 77,109 |
11 | 0.35 | 2,00,000 | 70,099 |
12 | 0.32 | 2,00,000 | 63,726 |
13 | 0.29 | 2,00,000 | 57,933 |
14 | 0.26 | 2,00,000 | 52,666 |
15 | 0.24 | 2,00,000 | 47,878 |
7,63,059 | |||
Add: | To be received today | 10,00,000 | |
17,63,059 | |||
Add: Additional amount on sales | 70 % probability | 5,04,000 | |
(30,00,000*70%*0.24) | |||
Net Present Value | 22,67,059 |
Offer 2 :-
Year | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | total NPV |
Sales | 20,00,000 | 28,00,000 | 39,20,000 | 54,88,000 | |
Gross Profit @60% | 12,00,000 | 16,80,000 | 23,52,000 | 32,92,800 | |
Dr. share @30% | 3,60,000 | 5,04,000 | 7,05,600 | 9,87,840 | |
PVF @10% | 0.91 | 0.83 | 0.75 | 0.68 | |
Present Value | 3,27,273 | 4,16,529 | 5,30,128 | 6,74,708 | 19,48,637 |
Offer 3: The payments in this case are starting at the beginning of the year. In this case, the formula for PV for annuity is:
P = PMT x ((1 - (1 / (1 + r) ^ n)) / r) x (1 + r), where
PMT = annuity, r=rate for period, n=periods
= 200000*((1-(1/ (1+0.05)^16))/0.05)*(1.05)
= $22,75,932
Hence, from the above three scenarios, Dr. Wolf should choose option 3 since it has the highest net present value.
Hope the above clarifies, please let me know in case of any clarifications.
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