Question

Cash             40,000 Loss on Sale             10,000 Accumulated Depreciation        &nbs

Cash

            40,000

Loss on Sale

            10,000

Accumulated Depreciation

          250,000

Machine

          300,000

Question: Why is this not an impairment loss? When does an impairment loss apply? I am not asking about the technical details about how to calculate the impairment loss. I am just looking for a brief explanation (in one or two sentences) about the basic difference between an impairment loss scenario and the scenario described above?

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Answer #1

In the given scenario, there is a debit to cash account which denotes that cash has been received in the transaction thereby indicating a sale of asset.

In case of an impairment loss there would be no cash account involved. The debit in case of impairment would be to loss on impairment account and accumulated depreciation account with credit to the asset account.

Thus, the basic difference between an impairment loss scenario and the one described is the existence of cash account.

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