Part (1)
Wd = proportion of debt = LTV = 80%
Cost of debt, Kd = Annualized YTM = 12 x Monthly YTM = 12 x RATE (Nper, PMT, PV, FV) = 12 x RATE (12 x 30, 6%/12, -1, 0) = 4.39%
We = proportion of equity = 1 - Wd = 1 - 80% = 20%
Cost of equity, Ke = Developer's IRR = 18%
Hence, WACC = r = Wd x Kd + We x Ke = 80% x 4.39% + 20% x 18% = 7.11%
Part (2)
Please see the table below. Please be guided by the second column titled “Linkage” to understand the mathematics. The last row highlighted in yellow is your answer. Figures in parenthesis, if any, mean negative values. All financials are in $.
Year, N | Linkage | 1 | 2 | 3 |
GPI | A | 500,000 | 505,000 | 510,050 |
V&C | B = 5% x A | 25,000 | 25,250 | 25,503 |
Operating expneses | C = 20% x A | 100,000 | 101,000 | 102,010 |
NOI | D = A - B - C | 375,000 | 378,750 | 382,538 |
WACC | r | 7.11% | ||
PV factor | PVF = (1 + r)^(-N) | 0.93362 | 0.87165 | 0.81379 |
Present value of NOI | PV = PVF x D | 350,108 | 330,138 | 311,306 |
Total PV of NOI | Sum of all PVs | 991,552 |
Part (3)
If Appraised value is V, then sale value = V x (1 + appreciation rate)N = V x (1 + 3%)3 = 1.0927V
Balance loan amount = - PV (Rate, Nper, PMT, FV) = - PV(4.39%/12, 12 x (30 - 3), 6%/12, 0) = 0.9481 times the original loan amount.
Original loan amount = 80% LTV = 80% x V = 0.8V
Hence, balance loan amount = 0.8V x 0.9481 = 0.7585V
Hence, reversion = Sale value - balance loan amount = 1.0927V - 0.7585V = 0.3343V
PV of reversion = Reversion / (1 + r)N = 0.3343V / (1 + 7.11%)3 = 0.2720V
Part (4)
Appraised Value = V = PV of NOI + PV of reversion = 991,552 + 0.2720V
Hence, V - 0.2720V = 0.7280V = 991,552
Hence, Appraised Value = V = 991,552 / 0.7280 = $ 1,362,052
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