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I believe I have a right, but I’m not sure, and I’m not sure how to do b
(a) Show that the general solution in one dimension for Ψ(z,t) given a snapshot of the wavefunction Ψ(x, to) at t to is given by $(z,t) = 늚 J Ψ(z,to)eik(z-n-i.it-to) dr.dk This gives Ψ(z,t) at the price of two integrations. Reduce it to a single integral by carrying out the integral over k. (b)
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Answer #1

(b)

ψ(z, t)

-iw (t-to)

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