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CAPITAL STRUCTURE PROBLEM The following data reflect a firms condition. current financial Value of debt (book value=market v
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Answer #1

(1)

Value of the firm with additional debt = Value of the firm before additional debt + Additional Tax shield

30,000,000 + 0.40 * 1,500,000 = $30,600,000  

Based on the value of the firm, additional debit can be issued.

(2) To arrive at new share price p,

First calculate the new equity value i.e Firm value after additional debt - Current Debt

= $ 30,600,000 - $ 6,500,000 = $ 24,100,000

Second check the no. of shares outstanding after repurchase.

Originally $25,000,000 equity @ $ 25 per share gives us 1000,000 shares outstanding.

No. of shares repurchased with additional debt of $1,500,000 = 1,500,000 / 25 = 60,000

So the no. of shares outstanding after repurchase = 1,000,000 - 60,000 = 940,000

Finally, new share price = Equity value / No. of shares outstanding = 24,100,000 /940,000 = 25.64

(3 )

Originally with 1 Million shares and a debt of 5 Million
EBIT                5,500,000.00
Interest @ 10% on 5 Million                    500,000.00
EBT                5,000,000.00
Tax @ 40%                2,000,000.00
Net Income                3,000,000.00
EPS = NI / No of outstanding shares                                 3.00
Higher debt level of 6.5 Million and 940000 shares
EBIT                5,500,000.00
Interest @12%                    780,000.00
EBT                4,720,000.00
Tax @40%                1,888,000.00
Net Income                2,832,000.00
EPS = NI / No of outstanding shares                                 3.01

(4) It is clear now that apart from tax shield savings additional debt also increased the earning per share. Increase in EPS is seen as a positive sign. A share repurchase signals that the company believes in a strong future and the stock is currently undervalued. So it it beneficial to raise additional debt.

(5) Before calculating WACC let us arrive at the cost of equity. We use CAPM for this.

Re = Rf + Beta ( Rm - Rf) = 0.06 + 1.5 ( .10-.06) = .12 or 12%

WACC = D / V * rd * (1-t) + E /V * re = 5000,000/30,000,000 * .10 (1-.4) + 25,000,000/30,000,000 *.12 = 0.11 or 11%

(6) WACC at new debt level

Cost of equity using CAPM  Re = Rf + Beta ( Rm - Rf) = 0.06 + 2 ( .10-.06) = .14 or 14%

WACC = D / V * rd * (1-t) + E /V * re = 6,500,000/30,600,000 * .12 (1-.4) + 24,100,000/30,600,000 *.14 = 0.1256 or 12.56%

(7) As per Modigiliani Miller propositions with taxes the important point to be noted is that debt maximizes the value of the company and minimizes the WACC. This means the following

a. An all equity firm value is less than the value of the firm with debt due to savings from tax shield.

b. The cost of equity increases with increase in borrowing but at a slower rate because of the tax component.

An all equity firm cost of equity is represented as Re= r0 + ( r0 - rd) D/ E where r0 is cost of all equity.

A firm with debt cost of equity is represented as Re= r0 + ( r0 - rd) (1-) D/ E

So clearly the cost of equity increases but at a slower rate minimizing the WACC.

It is advisable to borrow additional 1.5 million.

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